Repere prin Cartea Daniel cu Valer Brancovan (1 din 4) –– (la Credo TV)

Pastorul Valeriu Brancovan din Sacramento, California despre Cartea profetului  Vechiului Testament – Daniel:

Cred ca primul lucru care ar trebui sa-l spun despre cartea lui Daniel este ca a fost validata de insusi Isus, care a citat-o si s-a referit la ea. (Matei 24:15 – De aceea, cînd veţi vedea ,urîciunea pustiirii`, despre care a vorbit proorocul Daniel, ,aşezată în locul sfînt` -cine citeşte să înţeleagă! -) In permanenta, in evanghelii s-a referit la Sine insusi ca la Fiul Omului. Fiul Omului este un concept din capitolul 7 din Daniel. In mod exceptional este prezentat in capitolul 7(pînă cînd a veni Cel Îmbătrînit de zile şi a făcut dreptate sfinţilor Celui Prea Înalt), acest concept al Fiului Omului. Avem o dubla validare prin care Isus ia adus-o.

Nu poate cineva macar sa gandeasca la interpretarea Apocalipsei daca nu intelege de unde au venit toate imaginile pe care le foloseste Ioan in insula Patmos. Noi credem ca toata Biblia este inspirata de Dumnezeu, atat in Daniel cat si in Apocalipsa, e acelasi Duh Sfant care l-a inspirat pe Daniel cum la inspirat si pe Ioan atunci cand Ioan foloseste vadit imagini din Daniel: fiare, capete, succesiune de imparatii, vremuri, semnuri si deasemenea aceste timpuri de 3 ani si jumatate- o vreme, doua vremuri. Aceste lucruri, Ioan le preia, le combina intr-un mod care apare surprinzator. (8:24 minute mark)

A W Pink – The Law and the Saint (Part 2)

In this- Part 2 of Pink’s book ‘The Law and the Saint’, Pink expands on this passage:

What is the relation of the Law to the saint? Three answers have been given:

  1. First, that sinners become saints by obeying the Law.
  2. Second, that the Law is a rule of life for believers.
  3. Third, that the Law has nothing whatever to do with believers today.

Those who give the first answer teach that the Law defines what God requires from man, and therefore man must keep it in order to be accepted by God.

Those who give the second answer teach that the Law exhibits a standard of conduct, and that while this Old Testament standard receives amplification in the New, yet the latter does not set aside the former.

Those who give the third answer teach that the Law was a yoke of bondage, grievous to be borne, and that it has been made an end of so far as Christians are concerned.

The first answer is Legalism pure and simple: salvation by works; the second, relates to true Christian liberty; the third, is Antinomianism–lawlessness, a repudiation of God’s governmental authority. The first view prevailed generally through the Medieval Ages, when Popery reigned almost supreme. The second view prevailed generally during the time of the Reformers and
Puritans. The third view has come into prominence during the last century, and now is the popular belief of our day.

(All highlighting and underlining is mine and is primarily used to facilitate easier reading for this lengthy post)

READ Part 1 here

Arthur and Vera pink July 20, 1928 (via amazon.com)

The Negative Side

   What is the relation between the Law and the saint? By the Law we refer
   to the Ten Commandments engraven upon the tables of stone by the finger
   of God; by the saint we mean, the believer living in the present
   dispensation. What, then, is the relation between the Christian living
   today and the Ten Commandments formally proclaimed in the time of
   Moses? It is indeed sad that such a question needs to be raised, and
   that the Divine answer requires to be pressed upon the people of God.
   There was a time when it would not have been easy to find a Christian
   who was ignorant upon this subject; a time when the first thing
   committed to memory by the children of Christian parents was the Ten
   Commandments. But, alas, today it is far otherwise. Now, it is becoming
   increasingly difficult to find those who can give a clear and
   scriptural answer to our opening question. And as to finding children
   who can repeat the Ten Commandments, they are rare indeed.

   The Law and the saint. Present-day teachings on this subject, as on
   almost every other scriptural theme, is conflicting and contradictory.
   There are indeed few Divine doctrines upon which even Christian
   teachers are uniform in their testimony. What differences of opinion
   exist concerning Church-truth and the ordinances! What a variety of
   interpretations of prophecy now confront us! What a lack of harmony
   concerning the doctrine of sanctification. The same confusion prevails
   concerning the relation of the Law to the saint. Just as the Confusion
   of Tongues (Gen. 11) immediately preceded God's call to Abraham (the
   father of us all) to leave his native home and go forth into that land
   which he was to receive for an inheritance (Gen. 12), so there is a
   confusion of tongues in the theological world just before the people of
   God are to be called away from this earth to their heavenly inheritance
   (1 Peter 1:4). That God has a good reason for permitting the present
   confusion of tongues, we doubt not--"For there must be factions among
   you; that they that are approved may be made manifest among you" (1
   Cor. 11:19, R.V.).

   What is the relation of the Law to the saint? Three answers have been
   given. First, that sinners become saints by obeying the Law. Second,
   that the Law is a rule of life for believers. Third, that the Law has
   nothing whatever to do with believers today. Those who give the first
   answer teach that the Law defines what God requires from man, and
   therefore man must keep it in order to be accepted by God. Those who
   give the second answer teach that the Law exhibits a standard of
   conduct, and that while this Old Testament standard receives
   amplification in the New, yet the latter does not set aside the former.
   Those who give the third answer teach that the Law was a yoke of
   bondage, grievous to be borne, and that it has been made an end of so
   far as Christians are concerned. The first answer is Legalism pure and
   simple: salvation by works; the second, relates to true Christian
   liberty; the third, is Antinomianism--lawlessness, a repudiation of
   God's governmental authority. The first view prevailed generally
   through the Medieval Ages, when Popery reigned almost supreme. The
   second view prevailed generally during the time of the Reformers and
   Puritans. The third view has come into prominence during the last
   century, and now is the popular belief of our day.

   How thankful we should be that it is our happy privilege to return from
   the theological bedlam that surrounds us, and enter the quiet sanctuary
   of God's truth; that we may turn away from the conflicting voices of
   men, to hear what God says on the subject. We trust that this is the
   hearty desire of our readers. We cherish the hope that few who have
   read the above paragraphs are so conceited as to suppose they have no
   need to examine or re-examine what the Scriptures teach about the
   relation of the Law to believers. We are persuaded, rather, that the
   reader shares the conviction of the writer, namely, that this is an
   imperative necessity. It is so easy to conclude that our views of
   certain Divine truths have been formed from our own study of what we
   have (correctly or incorrectly) imbibed from human teachers. Our need
   is that of the Bereans (Acts 17:11)--to "Search the Scriptures daily"
   to find out whether or not what we hear and read is in accord with the
   Word of Truth. Moreover, this is sure, "if any man think that he
   knoweth anything, he knoweth nothing yet as he ought to know" (1 Cor.
   8:2). Therefore it behooves every one of us to definitely look to God
   for light and help, and then reverently turn to His Word for the needed
   instruction.

   Before we present to the reader some of the leading scriptures which
   set forth the relation of the Law to believers of this dispensation, it
   will first be necessary to examine the passages which are appealed to
   by those who affirm that the Law has no relation to the people of God
   living today. Let us then turn to these passages, and without prejudice
   (as far as that is possible) seek to ascertain their true meaning.


   1. "For as many as have sinned without Law shall also perish without
   Law...for when the Gentiles which have not the Law, do by nature the
   things contained in the Law, these, having not the Law, are a Law unto
   themselves" (Rom. 2:12-14). These verses really have no direct bearing
   on our present theme, inasmuch as they treat of other than saints. Yet,
   as this passage does relate to the wider subject of the Law in general,
   and as it is made use of by those who flatly and hotly deny the Law has
   any relation to believers today, we give it a brief notice.

   It is affirmed by some whom we respect, but from whom on this subject
   we are obliged to differ, that the Law was given to the nation of
   Israel and to none else, and therefore, that neither Gentiles nor
   Christians are under any obligation to keep it. That the Law was
   formally given to Israel at Sinai is freely granted. But does that
   prove it was meant for none other than the descendants of Jacob? Surely
   not. When writing to the saints at Rome (many of whom were Gentiles,
   see 1:13; 11:13; 15:15, 16, etc.) Paul said, "But now we are delivered
   from the Law" (7:6). Again, in 8:7 he declares, "The carnal mind is
   enmity against God: for it is not subject to the Law of God, neither
   indeed can be": mark, it is not "the Jewish mind", but the "carnal
   mind" to Jew and Gentile alike. Now, there would be no point to this
   statement if the mind of man, as man, is not obligated to be in
   subjection to the Law of God. Man's mind is not subject, and because of
   its innate depravity "cannot be"; nevertheless, it ought to be. Once
   more: note how in Eph. 2:2 the wicked are said to be "children of
   disobedience"; this is meaningless if they are not under obligation to
   obey the commandments of God. These scriptures, then, are sufficient to
   establish the fact that Gentiles, as well as Jews, are "under the Law".

   Returning now to Rom. 2:12, 13. The simple meaning of these verses is
   that, the Gentiles never had given to them the two tablets of stone on
   which the Ten Commandments were inscribed, nor were they in possession
   of the Scriptures, wherein those Commandments were recorded. But it
   should be carefully noted that Rom. 2:5 goes on to state these very
   Gentiles "show the work of the Law written on their hearts". On these
   verses Prof. Stifler has well said, "The argument (of v.14) lies in
   this, that Gentiles have what is tantamount to the moral Law". The fact
   that the Gentiles are "a law unto themselves" shows that God gave them
   the equivalent of what He gave the Jews, namely, a standard of right
   and wrong. In the case of the former, it was "written in their hearts",
   in the case of the latter, it was written on tables of stone, and
   afterwards in the Scriptures. "From this it is clear that the moral Law
   given to Israel by Moses was but a transcript, or compendium, of the
   Law which God, in the creation, had stamped upon the moral nature of
   man...The moral Law, therefore, was not altogether new in the time of
   the exodus; nor was it something exclusively for Israel, but was a gift
   for the whole race, and therefore, must be of perpetual validity" (Mr.
   Wm. Mead).

   2. "For ye are not under the Law, but under grace" (Rom. 6:14). This is
   the favorite verse with those who take the position that the Law has no
   relation to believers of this dispensation. "Not under the Law" is
   explicit, and seems final. What, then, have we to say concerning it?
   This: that like every other verse in the Bible, it must not be divorced
   from its setting, but is to be studied and faithfully interpreted in
   the light of its context. What, then, is the context about? First, what
   is the remote context concerned with? Second, what is the theme of the
   immediate context? By the remote context we mean, the Epistle as a
   whole. This is always the first thing to be weighed in connection with
   the exposition of any passage. Failure here is responsible for the
   great majority of misinterpretations and erroneous applications of
   Scripture. It should be carefully noted that the words "Ye are not
   under the Law" but "under grace" are found not in Hebrews, but in
   Romans. This, of itself, should warn us that "not under Law" needs to
   be understood in a modified sense. If it were true that the Law has
   been abrogated, then the Epistle to the Hebrews would be the one place
   of all others where we should expect to find this taught. The theme of
   Hebrews is, The superiority of Christianity over Judaism. [5] In the
   expansion of this theme the apostle, again and again, shows how the
   prominent things in Judaism are not obsolete--see chapter 7 for the
   changing of the priesthood, from the Aaronic to the Melchizedek order;
   chapters 8 and 9 for the substitution of the new covenant for the old,
   etc. And yet, not a word is said in it that the Law is now supplanted
   by grace.

   "Not under the Law, but under grace" is found in Romans, the great
   theme of which is, The righteousness of God: man's need of God's
   righteousness, how it becomes the believer's, what are the legal
   consequences of this, and the effect it should have on our conduct. The
   prominent feature of the first eight chapters of Romans is that they
   treat of the judicial side of Gospel truth, rather than with the
   experimental and practical. Romans 5 and 6, especially, treat of
   justification and its consequences. In the light of this fact it is not
   difficult to discover the meaning of 6:14. "Ye are not under the Law,
   but under grace" signifies, Ye are under a system of gratuitous
   justification. "The whole previous argument explains this sentence. He
   refers to our acceptance. He goes back to the justification of the
   guilty, without the deeds of the Law', the act of free grace; and
   briefly re-states it thus, that he may take up afresh the position that
   this glorious liberation means not license, but Divine order" (Bishop
   Moule - 1893).

   "Ye are not under the Law but under grace". The contrast is not between
   the Law of Moses and the gospel of Christ, as two economies or
   dispensations, rather is it a contrast between Law and grace as the
   principles of two methods of justification, the one false, the other
   true; the one of human devising, the other of Divine provision. "Under
   Law" means, ruled by Law as a covenant of "works" (Dr.
   Griffith-Thomas). "Law" and "grace" here are parallel with "the Law of
   works" and "the Law of faith" in 3:27! Rom. 6:14 was just as true of
   the Old Testament saints as of New Testament believers. Caleb, Joshua,
   David, Elijah, Daniel were no more "under Law" in the sense that these
   words bear in Rom. 6:14, than Christians are today. Instead, they were
   "under grace" in the matter of their justification, just as truly as we
   are.

   "Not under the Law" does not mean, Not under obligation to obey the
   precepts of the moral Law; but signifies, Not keeping the Law in order
   to be saved. The apostle asserts in this verse that Christians are not
   under the Law, as an actual, effectual adequate means of justification
   or sanctification, and if they are so, their case is utterly hopeless;
   for ruin must inevitably ensue. That this is all that he means is
   apparent from the sequel of his remarks (6:15-8:39). What can be
   plainer, than that the moral Law as precept' is altogether approved and
   recognized by him. See chapter 7:12-14. Nay, so far is the apostle from
   pleading for oblivion or repeal of moral precepts, that he asserts
   directly (8:3, 4) that the Gospel is designed to secure obedience to
   these moral precepts; which the Law was unable to do. It is, then, from
   the Law viewed in this light, and this only, namely, as inadequate to
   effect the justification and secure the obedience of sinners, that the
   apostle declares us to be free.

   "Let no one, then, abuse this declaration by imagining that it in
   anywise affords ground to believe that Christians are freed from
   obligation to obey the precepts of the moral Law. What is the Divine
   Law but a transcript of the Divine will? And are not Christians to be
   conformed to this? Is not all the Law summed up in these two
   declarations: Thou shalt love the Lord with all thine heart; and thy
   neighbour as thyself'! And are Christians absolved from loving God and
   their neighbour? If not, then this part of the subject stands
   unembarrassed by anything which the apostle has said in our text or
   context" (Prof. Moses Stuart).

   The force of Rom. 6:14 becomes more apparent if we observe what follows
   it. In the very next verse we read, "What then? Shall we sin, because
   we are not under the Law, but under grace? God forbid". This
   anticipates an objection: If we are not under the Law as the ground of
   our justification, then are we to be lawless? The inspired answer is,
   God forbid. Nothing is more self-evidently certain then, that if the
   moral Law is not a rule of life to believers, they are at liberty to
   disregard its precepts. But the apostle rejects this error with the
   utmost abhorrence. We quote here a part of Calvin's comments on Rom.
   6:15: "But we are much deceived if we think, that the righteousness
   which God approves of in His Law is abolished, when the Law is
   abrogated; for the abrogation is by no means to be applied to the
   precepts which teach the right way of living, as Christ confirms and
   sanctions these, and does not abrogate them; but the right view is,
   that nothing is taken away but the curse, to which men without grace
   are subject".

   In what follows, to the end of this chapter, the apostle shows that
   though the believer is "not under Law" as the ground of his
   justification, nevertheless, he is under the Law as a rule of his
   Christian life, that is, he is under obligations to obey its moral
   precepts. In v. 18 (which contains the positive answer to the question
   asked in v. 15) the apostle declares, "being then made free from sin,
   ye became the servants (bond-slaves) of righteousness". Again in v. 22
   he says, "But now being made free from sin, and become servants of God,
   ye have your fruit unto holiness". Observe carefully, it is not here
   said "servants of Christ", nor "servants of the Father", which would
   bring in quite another thought, but "servants of God", which enforces
   the believer's responsibility to the Law-giver. That this is the
   meaning of Rom 6:18 and 22 is clear from 7:25, where the apostle says,
   "So then with the mind I myself serve THE LAW OF GOD".

   3. "Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the Law...Now we
   are delivered from the Law" (Rom. 7:4, 6). These statements really call
   for a full exposition of Rom. 7:1-6. but it would occupy too much space
   to give that here. Perhaps we can arrive at the meaning of these two
   verses by a shorter route. They occur in a section of the Epistle which
   treats of the results of Divine righteousness being imputed to the
   believer. Chapter 4 deals with the imputation of this righteousness;
   chapters 5 to 8 give the results. The results (summarized) are as
   follows: 5:1-11 Justification and Reconciliation; 5:12-6:23
   Identification with Christ, the last Adam; 7:1-25 Emancipation from the
   Curse of the Law; 8:1-39 Preservation through time and eternity. Thus
   it will be seen that these chapters deal mainly with the Divine rather
   than the human side of things. "Dead to the Law" in 7:4 is parallel
   with "dead to sin" in 6:2: parallel in this sense, that it is objective
   "death" not subjective; the judicial and not the practical aspect of
   truth which is in view. Observe it is said, we "become dead to the Law
   by the body of Christ", not by a Divine repeal of the Law. In other
   words, we died to the Law vicariously, in the person of our blessed
   Substitute. So, too, we are "delivered from the Law", or as the R. V.
   more accurately puts it "We have been discharged from the Law", because
   we have "died to that wherein we were held". In Christ we "died" to the
   judicial threatenings and ceremonial requirements of the Law.

   "Dead to the Law". "By the term the Law, in this place, is intended
   that Law which is obligatory on both Jews and Gentiles. It is the Law,
   the work of which is written in the hearts of all men; and that Law
   which was given to the Jews in which they rested, 2:17. It is the Law
   taken in the largest extent of the word, including the whole will of
   God in any way manifested to all mankind, whether Jew of Gentile. All
   those whom the apostle is addressing, had been under this Law in their
   unconverted state...To the moral Law exclusively here and throughout
   the rest of the chapter, the apostle refers...Dead to the Law means
   freedom from the power of the Law, as having endured its penalty, and
   satisfied its demands. It has ceased to have a claim on the obedience
   of believers in order to life (better, on believers it has ceased to
   pronounce its curse--A.W.P.), although it still remains their rule of
   duty" (Robert Haldane). On the words, "Now we are delivered from the
   Law", Mr. Haldane says: "Christ hath fulfilled the Law, and suffered
   its penalty for them, and they in consequence are free from its demands
   for the purpose of obtaining life, or that, on account of the breach of
   it, the purpose of obtaining life, or that, on account of the breath of
   it, they should suffer death".

   One further word needs to be said on Rom. 7:4-6. Some insist that the
   whole passage treats only of Jewish believers. But this is certainly a
   mistake. When Paul says in v.1 "I speak to them that know Law"--there
   is no article in the Greek--he reasons on the basis that his readers
   were fully cognizant of the principle that "the Law hath dominion over
   a man so long as he liveth". If Paul was here confining his address to
   Jewish believers, he had said, "I speak to those among you who know the
   Law". When he says "Know ye not, brethren" (v. 1) and "Wherefore, my
   brethren" (v. 4) he is addressing his brethren in Christ as the Jews,
   his brethren by nature, he is careful to so intimate, "My brethren, my
   kinsmen according to the flesh" (9:3)! Finally, it should be carefully
   noted how the apostle uses the pronouns "ye" and "we" interchangeably
   in vv.4 and 5. The emphatic "ye also" in v.4 seems specifically
   designed to show that his illustration in the previous verses, with its
   obvious suggestion of Israel's history, was strictly applicable to all
   Christians.

   "The deliverance from Law in Galatians is that which leads to the son
   ship of all saints, while the deliverance in Romans leads to the union
   of all saints with Christ. But in both they are viewed as all alike
   having been in bondage under Law, and all alike delivered from it. For
   indeed it is the design of the Holy Spirit ever to lead the saints of
   all ages to regard themselves as delivered from a common guilt,
   redeemed from a common curse--the curse of the Law'--rescued from a
   common doom; and all this as the result of the curse being fulfilled in
   the death of Him in whom they all alike died" (Charles Campbell).


   4. "For Christ is the end of the Law for righteousness to every one
   that believeth" (Rom. 10:4). Frequently, only the first half of this
   verse is quoted, "Christ is the end of the Law". But this is not all
   that is said here. Christ is the end of the Law for righteousness, that
   is, before God. The context unequivocally settles the scope and
   significance of this expression. Paul had just affirmed that Israel,
   who was ignorant of God's righteousness, had gone about "to establish
   their own righteousness". Once more it isjustification which is in
   view, and not the walk of a believer. Says Dr. Thos. Chalmers: "There
   is one obvious sense in which Christ is the end of the Law, and that is
   when the Law is viewed as a schoolmaster brings us to the conclusion,
   as to its last lesson, that Christ is our only refuge, our only
   righteousness". So also Dr. G. Thomas: "With Christ before us legal
   righteousness is necessarily at an end, and in not submitting to
   Christ, the Jews were refusing to submit to the God who gave them the
   Law".

   5. Another passage frequently appealed to by those who insist on the
   total abrogation of the Law is 2 Cor. 3. Such expressions as "That
   which is done away" (v. 11), and "that which is abolished" (v. 13) are
   regarded as alluding to the Ten Commandments "written and engraven in
   stones" (v. 7). That this is a mistake, is easily proven. For in Rom.
   13:9 and Eph. 6:2 several of the Ten Commandments are quoted and
   enforced. This is quite sufficient to prove that the moral Law is not
   "done away". And such scriptures as Isa. 2:2, 3; Jer. 31:33, etc., make
   it plain that the Law is not "abolished".

   In 2 Cor. 3 (and again and again throughout the Epistle) Paul is
   contending against false "apostles" (note 2:17 and see further 6:1;
   11:3, 4, 13, 22) who, preaching the Law to the exclusion of Christ,
   were seducing the people of God from the blessings of the new covenant.
   Consequently, the apostle is not here treating of the Law as the moral
   standard of conduct for believers, but as that which condemns sinners.
   The inspired penman is pointing out the folly of turning back to the
   Law as the ground of acceptance before God--which was what the false
   apostles insisted on. The method he follows is to draw a series of
   contrasts between the old covenant and the new, showing the
   immeasurable superiority of the latter over the former. He shows that
   apart from Christ, the old covenant was but a ministration of
   condemnation and death; that just as the body without the spirit is
   dead, so the Law without Christ was but a lifeless "letter". 2 Cor. 3,
   then contrasts Christianity with Judaism. That which has been "done
   away" is the old covenant; that which is "abolished" (for the
   Christian) is the ceremonial law.

   6. In the Galatian Epistle there are quite a number of verses which are
   used by those who affirm the Law has no relation to believers
   today--e.g. 2:19; 3:13; 3:23-25; 4:5; 5:18. Now it is impossible to
   understand these verses unless we first see what is the theme and
   character of the Epistle in which they are found. The theme of
   Galatians is the Believer's Emancipation from the Law. The special
   character of the Epistle is that it was written to confirm the faith of
   Christians, who had been troubled and shaken by Judaisers. But a
   careful reading of the Epistle should show the Emancipation here viewed
   is not from the Law as the standard of moral conduct, but from the
   curse or penalty of the Law; and the particular heresy of the Judaisers
   was not that they pressed the Ten Commandments upon the saints as a
   rule of life, but that they insisted the works of the Law must be
   fulfilled before a sinner could be saved. (See Acts 15:1). "The trouble
   at Galatia was legalism and ritualism. Speaking strictly the two are
   one; for the attempt to secure Divine favor through law observance
   leads inevitably to ritualism in its worst form. That the Galatians
   were going over to the ground of law for acceptance with God is evident
   from the whole tenor of the Epistle" (Prof. W. G. Morehead on
   "Galatians"). "The object of the Epistle to the Galatians was to
   restore among them the pure Gospel which they had received, but which
   they had so mingled with human works and ceremonies and a notion of
   their own free will and merits, as to have well-nigh lost it" ("Grace
   in Galatians" by Dr. George S. Bishop).

   The central issue raised in Galatians is not what is the standard of
   conduct for the believer's life, but what is the ground of a sinner's
   salvation. In proof of this assertion note carefully that in Gal. 1:7
   Paul expressly says the Judaisistic troublers were they who "would
   pervert the Gospel of Christ". Again, "That no man is justified by the
   Law in the sight of God is evident", etc. (3:11), shows the trend of
   the argument. Again; "For I testify again to every man that is
   circumcised, that he is a debtor to do the whole Law" (5:3 and cf 6:15)
   indicates wherein the Judaisers erred. So, "Christ is become of no
   effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the Law; ye are
   fallen from grace" (Gal. 5:4) evidences the subject of the Epistle. To
   "fall from grace" means not for a Christian to obey the Ten
   Commandments, but to do the works of the Law (moral and ceremonial) in
   order to be justified. The Law and the Gospel are irreconcilable. Every
   attempt to combine them strikes equally at the majesty of the Law and
   the grace of the Gospel.

   On Gal. 3:25 Dr. George Bishop has this to say: "We are no longer under
   a schoolmaster' i.e., for discipline, for penalty. It does not mean for
   precept. It does not mean that the Ten Commandments are abolished. It
   simply says, You are not saved by keeping the Commandments, nor are you
   lost if you fail. It is Christ who has saved you, and you cannot be
   lost. Now you will obey from the instinct of the new nature and from
   gratitude, for these are holiness'. On 5:13, 14 he says, By love serve
   one another'. Here the Law is brought in as a service. I am among you',
   Saud Hesysm; as One that serveth'--If ye love Me keep My commandments'.
   The New Testament repeats and enforces all the Ten Commandments. They
   were given to be kept, and kept they shall be. Matt. 5:19: For all the
   Law is fulfilled in one word, even in this, Thou shalt love thy
   neighbour as thyself'. The Law is fulfilled: the Law was given to be
   fulfilled, not only for us, but in us, who walk not after the flesh but
   after the Spirit. There is danger here of a mistake on either side--for
   if we do not preach faith alone for salvation, no one is saved; but if
   we preach a faith that does not obey, we preach that which nullifies
   the faith which saves us".

   On Gal. 5:18 Dr. John Eadie has this to say: "The Galatians were
   putting themselves in subjection to Law, and ignoring the free
   government of the Spirit. To be led by the Spirit is incompatible with
   being under the Law. So the beginning of Gal. 3. To be under the Law is
   thus to acknowledge its claim and to seek to obey it in hope of
   meriting eternal life". To be led by the Spirit is incompatible with
   being under the Law because the Holy Spirit leads a sinner to trust in
   Christ alone for salvation.

   7. "Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us,
   which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to His
   cross" (Col. 2:14). Here it is assumed that the "handwriting of
   ordinances" refers to the Ten Commandments, and, that "which was
   contrary to us", refers to Christians. Such a distortion is quickly
   discovered once this interpretation is exposed to the light. Observe,
   in the first place, that at the beginning of the previous verse the
   apostle refers to Gentile believers--"And you, being dead in your sins
   and the uncircumcision of your flesh", etc. The "us" of v.14 refers,
   then to Jewish believers. But between the "you" and the "us" is a word
   which supplies the key to what follows, namely, the word "together",
   which here, as in Eph. 2:5, 6, points to the spiritual union of
   believing Gentiles with believing Jews. Believing Jews and gentiles
   were "quickened together". And how could that be? Because they were
   "quickened together with Him". Christ acted vicariously, as the
   Representative of all His people, so that when He died they all died
   (judicially); when He was quickened they all were; when He rose again
   they all rose; not merely one part of them did, but all together. But
   in order for Jew and Gentile to enjoy fellowship, in order for them to
   be brought "together", that which had hitherto separated them must be
   made an end of. And it is this which is in view in Col. 2:14. The
   "handwriting of ordinances was against us", i.e. against the Jews, for
   their Divinely-given Law prohibited them for all religious intercourse
   with the Gentiles. But that which had been against the Jews, was taken
   out of the way, being nailed to the Cross. Nor does this interpretation
   stand unsupported: it is indubitably confirmed by a parallel passage.

   It is well-known among students of the Word that the Epistles of
   Ephesians and Colossians are largely complementary and supplementary;
   and it will frequently be found that the one is absolutely
   indispensable to the interpretation of the other. Now in Eph. 2 there
   is a passage which is strictly parallel with this portion of Col. 2. In
   v. 11 the apostle addresses the Gentile saints, who were of the
   Uncircumcision--note the reference to "uncircumsision" in Col. 2:13.
   Then in v. 12 he reminds them of how in their unconverted state they
   had been "aliens from the commonwealth of Israel", etc. But in v. 13 he
   tells them that they had been "made nigh" by the blood of Christ. The
   result of this is stated in v. 14: "For He is our peace who hath made
   both one" (i.e. both believing Jews and believing Gentiles): the "made
   both one" being parallel with the "quickened together" of Col. 2:13.
   Next the apostle tells how this had been made possible: "And hath
   broken down the middle wall of partition" (that had separated Jew from
   Gentile); which is parallel with "and took it out of the way", etc.
   Then the apostle declares, "having abolished in His flesh the enmity,
   the Law of commandments contained in ordinances", which is parallel
   with "blotting out the handwriting of ordinances"! Thus has God most
   graciously made us entirely independent of all human interpretations of
   Col. 2:13, 14, by interpreting it for us in Eph. 2:11-15. How much we
   lose by failing to compare scripture with scripture.

   8. One other verse we must consider, and that is 1 Tim. 1:9: "Knowing
   this, that the Law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless
   and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinner", etc. The key to this
   is supplied in the immediate context. In vv. 3 and 4 the apostle bids
   Timothy to "charge some that they preach no other doctrine, neither
   give heed to fables and endless genealogies", etc. It is clear that he
   has in mind those who had been infected by Judaisers. In v. 5 the
   apostle tells his son in the faith what was the "end", of "the
   commandments"--i.e. the moral Law, as is clear from what precedes and
   what follows. The design or aim of that Law which is "holy and just and
   good" (Rom. 7:12) was to direct and advance love to God and men; but
   this love ("charity") can spring only "out of a pure heart and a good
   conscience, and faith unfeigned".

   Next, in vv. 6 and 7 the apostle taxes the Judaisers and those affected
   by them, as having "swerved" from love and faith, turning aside to
   "vain jangling", and setting themselves up as teachers of the Law,
   understanding neither what they said nor affirmed. Then, in v. 8, the
   apostle guards against His readers drawing a false inference from what
   he had just said in v. 7, and so he declares "But we know that the Law
   is good, if a man use it lawfully"; thus amplifying what he had
   affirmed in v. 5. Lest they should think that because he had reflected
   upon the Judaisers, he had also disparaged the Law itself, he added
   this safeguard in v. 8. To "use" the Law "lawfully", is to use it as
   God intended it to be used: not as a means of salvation, but as a
   standard of conduct; not as the ground of our justification, but as the
   director of our obedience to God. The Law is used un-lawfully, not when
   presented as the rule of the believer's life, but when it is opposed to
   Christ!

   Finally, in vv. 9 and 10 the apostle contrasts the design of the Law as
   it respected believers and unbelievers: "The Law is not made for a
   righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient", etc. That is to
   say, the Law as an instrument of terror and condemnation, was not made
   for the righteous but for the wicked. "The Law, threatening,
   compelling, condemning, is not made for a righteous man, because he is
   pushed forward to duty of his own accord, and is no more led by the
   spirit of bondage and fear of punishment" (Turretin). "By the Law is to
   be understood, the moral Law, as it is armed with stings and terrors,
   to restrain rebellious sinners. By the righteous man, is meant, one in
   whom a principle of Divine grace is planted, and who, for the knowledge
   and love of God, chooses the things that are pleasing to Him. As the
   Law has annexed so many severe threatenings to the transgression of it,
   it is evidently directed to the wicked, who will only be compelled by
   fear from the outrageous breaking of it" (Poole's Annotations).

   We have now examined every passage of any importance in the New
   Testament which is used by modern Antinomians. And not one of them has
   a word to say against believers in this dispensation using the Law as
   the standard of their moral conduct. In our next article, we shall
   treat of the positive side of the subject, and show that the children
   of God are obligated to obey the Ten Commandments, not as a condition
   of salvation, but as the director of their obedience to God.

   In this article we have departed from our usual custom, in that we have
   quoted from quite a number of the commentators of the past. This has
   been done, not because we desired to buttress our expositions by an
   appeal to human authorities--though the interpretations of godly men of
   the past are not to be scorned and regarded as obsolete, rather should
   they receive the careful examination which they merit, for it was under
   such teaching was produced Christian conduct that puts to unutterable
   shame the laxity of the present-day Christian walk. No, we have
   appealed to the writings of Christian exegetes of the past that it
   might be seen we have not given a forced and novel interpretation of
   those passages which stood in the way of what we deem to be the truth
   on the subject of the relation of the Law to Christians; but instead,
   an interpretation which, though the result of personal study, is in
   full accord with that given by many, who for piety, scholarship,
   spiritual discernment, and knowledge of the Scriptures, few living
   today are worthy to be compared.
   [5] This theme is developed by showing the superiority of Christ--the
   Center and Life of Christianity--over angels. Adam, Moses, Hoshua,
   Aaron, and the whole Levitical economy.

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